Wednesday, June 22, 2016
Riddle Me This, Religion Edition
Why do Bibles have copyrights? Did G-d file for them?
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My god can beat up your god
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7 comments:
I think the copyrights are on certain modern translations, not the ancient texts.
To copyright, you need a distinct product, not a copy. So your copyrighted Bible is inherently different from any other Bible. This is an integral part of translation. So, by copyrighting, you are admitting to coming to a differing result from previous translators?
I guess this implies that today's Bibles are generic equivalents...the active ingredients are supposed to be the same, the inactive can change, the effect is supposed to be the same, it may look a little different.
Catholic bibles have a "nihil obstat" in the front, signed by the bishop, certifying that nothing in them contradicts Church doctrine.
Laughing out loud at that is not the reason I was once thrown out of a Catholic church.
CP88: Yeah, but the only true version is the original Klingon.
*librarian hat on*
It is specific to the translation. If you look at a King James Version (the original, not New King James) or an edition of the Greek or Catholic Vulgate, you won't see a copyright. It also applies to any commentary or explanation down in the footnotes. Translation even of something as well-known as the Bible can be a lot of work because you're trying to balance the literal translation with the colloquial meaning, while trying to preserve the poetry as well.
You'll also see copyright on the various audio versions separate from the text of those same translations, because the performance is separate from the text. (I feel sorry for the voice actors stuck with the begats.)
Also, if they change the communion wine recipes between editions, you have to refresh the copyright for the latest versions.
I see your hashtag label is "my god can beat up your god"
really?
My God is Unitarian. She IS your God. She wins. /smirk
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